Originally posted by Shakyamunison
It is only self-explanatory to you because you were taught how to think.
* I was not… wait, how do you even know you weren't the one who was taught how to think? 🙄
Originally posted by Shakyamunison
I have already shown you how someone could be worshiping a car and never light a candle, and how someone could light a candle to a statue and not be worshiping.
* which is not absolute because it is easier to determine that when people worships something, you can actually see what they are doing… which you stubbornly refuse to accept time and time again…
Originally posted by Shakyamunison
You have a point?
* why, yes… a more concrete point than yours…
Originally posted by long pig
Quest: Was Adam the first human?A: In my opinion, no. In gen 1:27 the word 'man' in the hebrew is 'ish', or 'mankind' not 'Adam' as in gen: 2:9. In fact, there are many differences between gen 1:27's man and gen 2:7's Adam.
Such as adam was created after the seventh day, but 'mankiind' was made on 6 day.
* of course, the word "man" in Genesis 1:27 is mankind and not Adam because Moses wrote the whole creation from Genesis 1:1 up to 2:3… then, in Genesis 2:4 onwards, Moses wrote the specifics…
Originally posted by long pig
6th day 'mankind' was created at the same time as 'womankind', unlike adam.
* Genesis 2:7 specifics (and Genesis 2:22 when God created Eve) is included in Genesis 1:27's sixth day, creation of man…
Originally posted by long pig
Also, gen 1:27 man was given 'every herb bearing seed and every fruit tree', Adam was not given every fruit tree (tree of good and evil banned).
* Genesis 2:16-17, God is talking specifically about the trees in the garden of Eden…while Genesis 1:29, God gave mankind all the trees in the world…
Originally posted by long pig
The existance of preadam men also explains how cain gota wife
* nope, Cain and Abel were not the only children of Adam and Eve… in Genesis 5:3-4, there came Seth, and many other sons and daughters of Adam and Eve… Cain's wife is logically one of his sisters, as the law about incest was not yet commanded in those times… in fact, Sarah, who is Abraham's wife is also his sister…
Originally posted by long pig
Q: Are the food laws done away with?A: Not imo. Most people believe that god cleansed all animals and thus we can eat anything. They usually quote peter's vision in the book of acts as proof. That couldn't be more false. In acts 10:5-20 it doesn't mean that all animals are clean, it clearly says that all PEOPLE are clean. Peter says so himself.
* in Mark 7:19, Jesus declared all food clean… the food is brôma (G1033) in Greek which means "that which is eaten"… but there are things not to be eaten which are not considered as "food" in the Bible, for example: sacrificed to idols, blood and, what is strangled (Acts 15:29)…
Originally posted by long pig
Q: Did Judas commit suicide?A: Maybe. Maybe not. In the gospels it says judas 'hung' himself, BUT in acts 1:18 it basically says he was thrown down a cliff and died on impact. Now, imo it cant be too easy to hang yourself to death and then throw yourself to ur death afterwards. In greek figures of speech, to 'hang' urself meant to self incriminate. judas did that. i think the pharasees were afraid of judas telling what they did so they threw him off a cliff. They tried to do the same to jesus.
* in the Bible, Judas Iscariot did commit suicide… St. Luke (who traced the course of all things accurately from the first, Luke 1:3) had written the event explicitly: "falling headlong he burst open in the middle and all his bowels gushed out" (Acts 1:18)… St. Matthew wrote that Judas hanged himself (Matthew 27:5)…
Originally posted by long pig
Q: Has the law been done away with?A: No way. 'Sin is the transgression of the law'. Jesus did not come to destroy the law but to 'fulfill' it.
* what law? the law of Moses? the law was for Israel (Malachi 4:4) and only until John the Baptist (Luke 16:16)… in the time of Christianity, we are not justified through the law of Moses (Acts 13:39)… some laws are retained but some are also obsolete… loving God and other people are example of laws that retained… while keeping the (literal day of ) sabbath is obsolete, because the "sabbath" in Christianity is a spiritual rest (Matthew 11:28-30)… Jesus destroyed sabbath (John 5:18), but He did not sin against sabbath because He is above sabbath, He is the Lord of sabbath (Mark 2:28)… what law did He fulfill? -> the laws and psalms concerning Himself only (Luke 24:44)…
Originally posted by long pig
Q: Will sinners be tortured with fire and pain for eternity in the lake of fire?A: This is the worst of the worst of false doctrine imo. it makes a fair, just god look like a evil monster.
The bible is overwhelmingly clear that any soul that enters the LOF will cease to exist. Yes, the soul can die! The soul is only immortal if u r saved. A sinners soul is mortal. jesus said 'fear not he who can kill ur body and not ur soul, but fear him who can kill both body and soul in hell'.
* God punishing the devil does not make God an evil monster… the devil deserves it…
* in the Bible, spirits like angels do not die (Luke 20:36)… so the logical punishment for entities who do not die is a punishment which does not die or cease also… the worms and fire do not die in hell (Mark 9:44, 46, 48)… the "killling of body and soul in hell" in Matthew 10:28 means death… but "death" in the Bible does not automatically means to cease to exist… there is a physical death and there is a spiritual death… a person who lives an evil life is dead in God's eyes eventhough he is physically alive (I Timothy 5:6)… and being condemned and thrown into the lake of fire is death, i.e. second death (Revelation 20:14)…
Originally posted by long pig
In Rev 20:19, the greek word translated torment is 'kenosis', which never ever ever means torment, it can only mean distroyed.
* the "torment" is Revelation 20:10 is basanizô (G928) in Greek which really means "torment"…
Originally posted by long pig
'For ever and ever' in v10 is different than the word 'forever'. In the greek its simply a word meaning 'for a span of time'.
* the "for ever and ever"… "ever" is aiôn (G165) in Greek which really means "eternity"…
Originally posted by Shakyamunison
Please prove there is a soul.
* in the Bible, we have soul… if there is no soul in Buddhism, we have no point of argument due to differences in basis…