Savage Opress...

Originally posted by DARTH POWER
Right I just read about Darth Krayt, and I officially have nothing left to say. That not only contradicts the prophecy but also the rule of two!

But The only palusible explanation would still be that the prophecy refers to Bane's order which lead to the most powerful sith of all time taking control of the galaxy. But that still requires rendering DE non canon.

Otherwise the EU is just all a big contradiction to the movies, and not even worth paying attention to.

see, we don't know what "bring balance to the force" meant. We really don't. We thought it meant destroy the Sith, but that isn't stated.

Originally posted by truejedi
see, we don't know what "bring balance to the force" meant. We really don't. We thought it meant destroy the Sith, but that isn't stated.

That was easy.

There's a very easy way to solve the problem of the prophecy, Chee's calling the movie the "official" showing of the Force, etc.:

That all fall's in to "Lucas' Star Wars", where the EU doesn't exist.

I made that point awhile ago. People are allergic to logic though.

Originally posted by DARTH POWER
And your wanting to make C-Canon just as canon as G-Canon. You have no respect for the levels of canonicity, so it is a wonder you even use the letters C, G before Canon.

This above all else makes you look completely like an idiot. No one is saying that DE should be G-Canon. Just that it's Canon. If you really want to be picky you should realize that not even all "Sith" (dark siders) were destroyed at the end of RotJ. Now what is the definition of Sith? Is it ones that call themselves Sith because then like said before, Caedus and company should be ignored from Star Wars as well.

Originally posted by SIDIOUS 66
You're trying to interpret the prophecy for us. (lol)

No whats funny is your just completely ignoring it. Anakin destroying the sith was part of the prophecy. And its quite obvious that at the very least means at least killing the sith lord who had taken over the galaxy. Which according to DE he didnt do.

Originally posted by truejedi
see, we don't know what "bring balance to the force" meant. We really don't. We thought it meant destroy the Sith, but that isn't stated.

We know part of the prophecy was destroying the sith. theres nothing to debate on that one.

Originally posted by SIDIOUS 66
Well it does make sense though, so we are going to make DP's explanation of the prophecy g-canon. As of today DE is no longer c-canon, it's officially non-canon.

That was easy.

Actually DE's not been canon since the prequels revealed the prophecy to us.

Look DE was made before the prequels, and Lucas has ignored the Palpatine not being destroyed thing! Lucas's word is law here. What do you not understand? Its not my interpretation you need to accept, but Lucas's words.

Originally posted by DARTH POWER
Actually DE's not been canon since the prequels revealed the prophecy to us.

Look DE was made before the prequels, and Lucas has ignored the Palpatine not being destroyed thing! Lucas's word is law here. What do you not understand? Its not my interpretation you need to accept, but Lucas's words.

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
This above all else makes you look completely like an idiot.

OH PLEAAAASEEE!! Im the one discussing canonicity with a bunch of monkeys here.

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
No one is saying that DE should be G-Canon. Just that it's Canon.

So what exactly do the G's and C's mean to you?? Why do you even use those letters if everything is just plain canon to you?
Im gna ask you the question now which Sidious66 has refused to answer since your such a smart ass..

Ki-Adi-Mundi was stated in C-canon material to be the first Knight(not Master) appointed to the council. In ROTS we find out it was Anakin who was the first Knight appointed, so is that fact about Mundi being the first Canon or Not??! Since according to you everything is Canon regardless.

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
If you really want to be picky you should realize that not even all "Sith" (dark siders) were destroyed at the end of RotJ. Now what is the definition of Sith? Is it ones that call themselves Sith because then like said before, Caedus and company should be ignored from Star Wars as well.

Sith are a cult. Anakin was to destory them in the prophecy. The prophecy could have just refferred to Bane's uber powerful cult which took over the Galaxy. However accordign to you DE is canon, no questions, therefore Anakin never destroyed any sith.

Originally posted by Lord Lucien
You do realize that via Lucas' own mouth, he says that this "other" Star Wars that is the EU is not "his" Star Wars. So why is there even an EU? Lucas himself as already declared everything except the movies, script, novels, and television shows non-canon.

Yes iv already mentioned the "2 universes" how he refers to them.

But he also borrows stuff from the EU, as he likes, so doesnt completely ignore it.

And the main point is that even from the EU's perspective, Lucas's world is the source material for all of it. So when there is a blatant contradiction, we take the G-Canon stuff as fact, and ignore the C-Canon version.

Like Maul and Ventress being from the same planet. Thats canon now, despite what Eu sources might have previously stated.

Originally posted by DARTH POWER
OH PLEAAAASEEE!! Im the one discussing canonicity with a bunch of monkeys here.

You can't even use the edit button, monkey.

So what exactly do the G's and C's mean to you?? Why do you even use those letters if everything is just plain canon to you?
Im gna ask you the question now which Sidious66 has refused to answer since your such a smart ass..

DE is C-Canon, it belongs to the Star Wars franchise and doesn't contradict the other material that was produced. So it belongs to Canon.

Ki-Adi-Mundi was stated in C-canon material to be the first Knight(not Master) appointed to the council. In ROTS we find out it was Anakin who was the first Knight appointed, so is that fact about Mundi being the first Canon or Not??! Since according to you everything is Canon regardless.

Are you dense? This is an in-universe contradiction in the story of Star Wars. There is nothing in the story that states Sidious' soul (not body) should be destroyed to fulfill the prophecy. Even if it would be so, we have no proof that Anakin is the Chosen One because of the vague description he was given in the prophecy which as I said before is questionable in itself.

Sith are a cult. Anakin was to destory them in the prophecy. The prophecy could have just refferred to Bane's uber powerful cult which took over the Galaxy. However accordign to you DE is canon, no questions, therefore Anakin never destroyed any sith.

Is it stated by an omnious narrator that Anakin was the one in the prophecy? How do you know that the Prophecy is about Bane's cult?

Can someone actually please give me the Prophecy word by word?

Interview with George Lucas from a documentary for the VHS version A New Hope, Special Edition:

"The first film starts with the last age of the Republic, which is it's getting tired, it's old, it's getting corrupt.
There's the rise of the Sith, who are becoming a force, and in the backdrop of this we have Anakin Skywalker, a young boy who is destined to be a significant player in bringing balance back to the Force and to the Republic...
Then in the second film we get into more of that turmoil. It's the beginning of the Clone Wars, it's the beginning of the end of democracy in the Republic, sort of the beginning of the end of the Republic. And it's Anakin Skywalker beginning to deal with some of his more intense emotions of anger, hatred, sense of loss, possessiveness, jealousy, and the other things he has to cope with.
And then we will get to the 3rd film where he is seduced to the dark side..
Which brings us up to the films 4, 5, and 6, in which Anakin's offspring redeem him and allow him to fulfill the prophecy where he brings balance to the Force by doing away with the Sith and getting rid of evil in the universe..."

This ^ says A LOT!! The post RotJ novels/storylines kind of defeat the purpose by allowing Sidious to reemerge not long after. This IS a contradiction to what we have with G-canon and related material.

Only DP knows the details of the prophecy. All these years fans have been wanting an explanation of what the prophecy is, and DP knew all about it.

I wonder why Chee went out of his way to explain, that in DE, Palpatine was lying about Vader's sacrafice not being his first death. Why would Chee even care, if the entire DE comics is a lie anyway? Please explain this for us DP. Why does Chee consider DE to be c-canon when it is really non-canon?

As for the Ki-Adi-Mundi question, I do not see how Anakin's word (fallible in-universe source) can over-ride an omniscient narrator. The complete visual dictionary said Mundi was the first non-master to be on the council.

Maybe DP is being picky. He only ignores certain levels of canon that he decides.

Originally posted by Jinsoku Takai
Interview with George Lucas from a documentary for the VHS version A New Hope, Special Edition:

"The first film starts with the last age of the Republic, which is it's getting tired, it's old, it's getting corrupt.
There's the rise of the Sith, who are becoming a force, and in the backdrop of this we have Anakin Skywalker, a young boy who is destined to be a significant player in bringing balance back to the Force and to the Republic...
Then in the second film we get into more of that turmoil. It's the beginning of the Clone Wars, it's the beginning of the end of democracy in the Republic, sort of the beginning of the end of the Republic. And it's Anakin Skywalker beginning to deal with some of his more intense emotions of anger, hatred, sense of loss, possessiveness, jealousy, and the other things he has to cope with.
And then we will get to the 3rd film where he is seduced to the dark side..
Which brings us up to the films 4, 5, and 6, in which Anakin's offspring redeem him and allow him to fulfill the prophecy where he brings balance to the Force by [b]doing away with the Sith and getting rid of evil in the universe..."

This ^ says A LOT!! The post RotJ novels/storylines kind of defeat the purpose by allowing Sidious to reemerge not long after. This IS a contradiction to what we have with G-canon and related material. [/B]

It seems like it would defeat the purpose by allowing any EU stories period. According to the EU, evil was never gotten rid of. This is where the EU becomes the parallel universe to Lucas' universe.

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
You can't even use the edit button, monkey.

Oh God a monkey whose an obsessive computer geek!

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
DE is C-Canon, it belongs to the Star Wars franchise and doesn't contradict the other material that was produced. So it belongs to Canon.

And so the difference to you between G and C canon is????

And urm yeah it contradicts the movies, which are the source of the eu, so its canonicity must at the very least be questioned.

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
Are you dense?

Your really asking for insults arnt ya?

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
This is an in-universe contradiction in the story of Star Wars.

Mr. "Il call u dense but cant answer a simple question" is it canon or not that Mundi was the first knight on the council?? Il give u a clue.. G-Canon source says its false, whilst C-canon source says its true. See if monkey intellect can work that one out?

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
There is nothing in the story that states Sidious' soul (not body) should be destroyed to fulfill the prophecy.

Il give you credit here for trying to give an explanation. But destroying a sith's physical body, only to have his concious go straight into a clone body, is not really destroying anything. Luke destroyed that first clone body? Right so? Ur making the prophecy mean absolute jack due to your ignorance.

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
Even if it would be so, we have no proof that Anakin is the Chosen One because of the vague description he was given in the prophecy which as I said before is questionable in itself.

HAHAHA! Do you even knw jack about Star Wars?! Anakin's not the chosen one??! LOL LOL

Originally posted by Slash_KMC
Is it stated by an omnious narrator that Anakin was the one in the prophecy? How do you know that the Prophecy is about Bane's cult?

Urmm... Its stated by a guy called George Lucas..

as for the Bane cult, I was being kind to all the post ROTJ EU stuff, and saying it could have been JUST that. We know that is the cult Anakin destroyed.

I'll has 2 l's in it btw.

Originally posted by Jinsoku Takai
This ^ says A LOT!! The post RotJ novels/storylines kind of defeat the purpose by allowing Sidious to reemerge not long after. This IS a contradiction to what we have with G-canon and related material.

Well I think this does do away with most the post ROTJ stuff, to which Lucas himself has never input anything.

Although im not sure we should take the "getting rid of evil" bit too literally. I mean there will obviously always be evil. But he clearly got rid of a very dangerous and powerful evil.

Also the sith he was supposed to destroy could have just been Bane's cult. Im not saying I know the prophecy Sidious66 before you start getting smart again, just that would be the only way of bringing it in line with the Eu. Not that it needs to, as G-Canon is the source material, and it is the Eu that has the responsibility of bringing its stories in line with G-Canon quotes.

Originally posted by SIDIOUS 66
It seems like it would defeat the purpose by allowing any EU stories period. According to the EU, evil was never gotten rid of. This is where the EU becomes the parallel universe to Lucas' universe.

Well it may defeat the purpose of any post ROTJ Eu material.