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*["We as Mormons believe that the Grace of God is twofold..."]
***You, as Mormons, can believe what you want...but we, as Christians, do NOT believe that...for that is NOT what the Scriptures teach.
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*["1- Christ paid for the transgression of Adam, meaning that no one else will ever need to. As the scriptures say, "As in Adam all die, even so in Christ are all made alive." Everyone regardless of belief or action will receive this gift of God (Grace) freely."]
***And, of course, as a Mormon you do ERR...NOT knowing the Scripture NOR God...that you might be saved. This scripture [1 Corinthians 15:22] refers ONLY to the RESURRECTION of BELIEVERS [i.e., those "in Christ" who shall be made ALIVE...as OPPOSED to those "in Adam" who will DIE].
DEATH came to ALL those related to Adam by NATURAL birth because of the DISOBEDIENCE of ONE man [Adam]. As the father of mankind...Adam in his SIN brought DEATH to EVERYBODY [Genesis 3:17-19;Romans 5:12;Psalm 51:5]. But because of the OBEDIENCE [Philippians 2:8] of ANOTHER man [1 Timothy 2:5]...RESURRECTION will come to ALL those RELATED to Him [i.e., Jesus Christ] by SPIRITUAL BIRTH [i.e., the NEW BIRTH...John 3:3-21]. Paul would later expand this grand truth in his letter to the Romans [Romans 5:12-19]. Those who are a part of the Body of Christ [1 Corinthians 12;27] will one day follow the lead of their HEAD [Colossians 1:18].
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*["2- Christ paid for the sins of each individual on earth. This is where the LDS view is at times in disagreement with other Christian sects..."]
***Mormonism is NOT a Christian religion...so that it is impossible for you to be in "disagreement with OTHER Christian sects""...you are ONLY in "disagreement with Christian sects."
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*["We believe that in order to receive this gift of grace, one must accept it through repentance and baptism, in other words certain works must be performed. Although you are correct in saying that there would be no impetus to perform them if the person didn't have faith to begin with.
So we are automatically saved from the consequences of Adams transgression, but we must accept salvation from our own."]
***Peter's answer in [Acts 2:38] was forthright. FIRST they were to REPENT. This verb [metanoesate] means "change your outlook," or "have a change of heart;reverse the direction of your life." This obviously results in a CHANGE of CONDUCT...but the EMPHASIS is on the MIND or OUTLOOK. The Jews had rejected Jesus; now they were to TRUST in Him. REPENTANCE was repeatedly part of the apostles' message in Acts [v. 38;3:19;5:31;8:22;11:18;13:24;17:30;19:420:21;26:20].
A problem revolves around the command "be baptized" and its connection with the remainder of [Acts 2:38]. There are several views:
(1)One is that BOTH "repentance and baptism" result in REMISSION of sins. In this view, baptism is ESSENTIAL for SALVATION. The PROBLEM with this "interpretation" is that elsewhere in Scripture forgiveness of sins is BASED on FAITH ALONE [John 3:16, 36;Romans 4:1-17;11:6;Galatians 3:8-9;Ephesians 2:8-9; etc.]. Furthermore Peter, the SAME speaker, later promised FORGIVENESS of SINS on the BASIS of FAITH ALONE [Acts 5:31;10:43;13:38;26:18].
(2)A second interpretation translates 2:38, "Be baptized...on the basis of the remission of your sins." The preposition used here is [eis] which...with the accusative case, may mean "on account of, on the basis of." It is used, in this way in [Matthew 3:11;12:41; and Mark 1:4]. Though it is possible for this construction to mean "on the basis of, " this is NOT its normal meaning; [eis] with the accusative case usually describes PURPOSE or DIRECTION.
(3)A third view takes the clause "and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ" as parenthetical. Several factors SUPPORT this interpretation: (a)The verb makes a DISTINCTION between SINGULAR and PLURAL verbs and nouns. The verb "repent" is PLURAL and so is the pronoun "your" in the clause "so that YOUR sins may be forgiven [literally "unto the remission of your sins,"...eis aphesin ton hamartion hymon]. Therefore the verb "repent" must go with the PURPOSE of forgiveness of sins. On the other hand...the imperative "be
baptized" is SINGULAR, setting it off from the rest of the sentence. (b)This concept fits with Peter's proclamation in [Acts 10:43] in which the SAME expression "sins may be forgiven" [aphesin hamartion] occurs. There it is granted on the basis of FAITH alone. (c)In [Luke 24:47] and [Acts 5:31] the same writer, Luke, indicates that REPENTANCE results in remission of sins.
"The gift of the Holy Ghost" is God's "promise" [Acts 1:5,8;2:33] to THOSE who TURN to the Lord...including Jews and their descendants and those "who are far off"...that is, Gentiles [Ephesians 2:13,17,19]. Acts 2:38-39 put together the HUMAN side of salvation ["repent"]...and the DIVINE side ["call" means "to elect"]; [cf. Romans 8:28-30].
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*["Does that make sense?"]
***Absolutely NOT.
Marchello