Originally posted by Darth MacabreI'm aware of the comma contraversies, but if anything that only further serves to make this statement ambiguous.
You're right, there is precedence in the fact that the right guarantees the ability to bear arms for the state against the country, as well outside forces. But in Lambert's version of it, there's a comma between militia and being, making the second clause more pronounced, and changing the "right" drastically.
Proclaiming only the second clause whenever the argument of whether gun retail and trade should be more tightly regulated is somewhat fallacious.
Also I've yet to receive any real input into my query from anyone. What exactly is the appeal of defending a "right to bear arms", and for that matter what exactly is the appeal of bearing arms?