Originally posted by Oliver North
The defense cites a case in their first motion for acquittal that has similar circumstances. Man leaves the scene, goes to his car with the specific intent to get a gun and shoot the person, shoots the person, and gets off on all charges, iirc. All I'm saying is that it wouldn't be without precedence.
Was that not a different set of circumstances, though? Meaning...the person he shot was not a resident of that house?
Using precedence can be difficult if they are not parallels.
Originally posted by Oliver North
would you accept that the racism of the courts is related to the racism that structures society in general?
No. I would accept that there is probably some racism that skews the numbers slightly but nothing anywhere close to the general population.
Originally posted by Oliver North
also, drug statistics are the exact opposite of what you have said. In the case of something like cocaine, whites use and sell it more, yet are many times less likely to be arrested and even less likely to be prosecuted. The documentary "how to make money selling drugs" has the raw numbers iirc, and is also a really good watch.
The one and only link to a discussion on the myths I posted shows a stupid high bias towards blacks with a drug policy. It doesn't deny that the drug policy itself was racist but only that the backers of that policy included a majority of black congressmen when it was passed (the crack/powder law). (The myth was that congress is white, old men, racists, passing laws that bring the "colored folk down".
Can we say that that policy or related policies are countered by the higher conviction rate of whites?
Edit - Do you have a title for that documentary? I'd be interested to watch it. I may have already seen it.